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If so, does the New Testament preserve their actual communications?These questions have generated rich debate through the years.Fitzmyer’s statement admits more than he may have intended: If asked what was the language commonly spoken in Palestine in the time of Jesus of Nazareth, most people with some acquaintance of that era and area would almost spontaneously answer Aramaic.

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If Jesus did indeed speak Greek, then we may have, as British scholar A. Argyle put it, “direct access to the original utterances of our Lord and not only to a translation of them.” Consequently, much more than just a few Aramaic words and expressions can be connected to the Jesus of history.(5) If Aramaic was the dominant language, why would the Jews be bilingual (some even trilingual)?(6) If Aramaic was the dominant language, why were many cities (such as Ptolemais and Scythopolis) and regions (like Decapolis and Idumea) called by Greek names?Did the gospel accounts represent accurately what Jesus taught, or were they misrepresentations of the historical Jesus?Was the Jesus of history different from the Christ of Scripture?The Aramaic Hypothesis is an inadequate solution for many of my questions: (1) If Aramaic was the dominant language in first-century CE Palestine (and throughout the Roman Empire), why were all the New Testament documents written in Greek?